At 2/12/10 01:25 PM, ThunderboltLegion wrote:
"but tens of thousands were killed over the years."
Years, "an unusually long period of time of indefinite length" ~ Dictionary.com
Yeah good job. Please look up "total" now.
It's not the time frame I'm having issues with, it's the number killed.
"tens of thousands". The highest estimate I've seen for total Christians killed under the Roman Empire has been 50,000. Now maybe there's more out there, but by and large estimates range much much lower than "tens of thousands". Over the years, in a single instance, or in total.
There are 3 reasons:
1.) Romans persecuted Christians ad hoc. Pliny's letters to Trajan are a good reflection of this. When it could be avoided, Romans avoided the bloodshed. A few select emperors went nuts, but 95% of all provincial administrators acted like Pliny. What really threw the Romans off was the fact that Christians went to their deaths WILLINGLY. That was enough of a reason to not kill them en masse.
2.) Christianity was underground. And it was also perverse. To root out Christians and persecute them on an Imperial scale would have been something like inviting civil war (especially considering a fair number of soldiers were Christian).
3.) Lack of corroborating evidence. All high estimates, ie, those over 10,000, are from later Christian sources. In other words, they are from sources predisposed to aggrandizing the spectacle. Christian embellish, just like Emperors and everyone else. Their deeds weren't really that spectacular, and the rivers didn't run red with Christan slaughtered.
So really, just 1500 Christians martyred from 64 AD to, say, the Edict of Milan in 313 AD?
Actually I think Gibbon may be referring to a single major persecution, Diocletian I think. I'll have to recheck this quote. But again, the Diocletian persecution was the most severe and wide spread, with a total being estimated at 1500.
So it really goes without saying that "tens of thousands" is a very biased, very inaccurate depiction of Christian Persecution under the Roman Empire.
You could have simply asked me to specify rather [...]:
You're supposed to provide the source up front. I shouldn't have to ask you nicely to supply evidence for your arguments. Conversation 101 bro.
Because it would only turn into a (one sided) shouting match [...]
I will keep hounding you as long as your arguments are irrational, and not backed by solid supporting evidence.
You want to get frustrated and leave? Or ignore me? Be my guest. You're gonna get creamed regardless, because there are some good debaters on these boards, and they are gonna be able to spot the rather large, gaping holes in your arguments.....and they WILL call you on it.....
Like I said, I could easily sit back and enjoy myself, it doesn't look like Bacchanalian or Avie are gonna miss much. I just wanted to add input because Roman history and Early Christianity are specialty areas of my education. I have more tid bits in this conversation than say....economics.
I mean no offence by any of this and I still harbor no ill will toward you (in fact I only wish you the best), I simply am not going to stick around and be continually patronized by you or by anyone, I can only take so much.
Then I suggest you show some intellectual integrity and SOURCE YOUR POINTS.
And I can prove this, in fact I already did but for some reason you refuse to accept this and continue to harp on this point as if I presumed something but did not support it with evidence. I did.
Maybe I missed it. Show me again. Show me the "deliberate alteration" the Catholic Church does. If it is NT, I will translate the original Greek and give you my translation. Because how one interprets the Bible depends on how it is translated.
My favorite is Jesus' stand before Pilate, when asked if he is the Son of God. He says "su legeis". A LOT of translations completely distort the meaning.....
Why the insults then? Why the condescension?
Calling you a charlatan bullshitter because you're putting up points without sound reference isn't insulting, it's accurate. Stop throwing bullshit and stop acting like a charlatan and my tones will change.
You are attacking me personally; it's frankly a little disturbing you can't see that.
I have nothing to prove to you.
Yes, I noticed you have not proved your arguments.
Yes, yes you do have something to prove to me. You have to prove your arguments.
You have yet to do so, therefore, I have no reason to believe them.
The trinity is alluded to several times in the Old Testament:
Genesis 1:26 "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness"
Genesis 3:22 "And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us"
Genesis 11:7 "Go to, let us go down"
Isaiah 6:8. "Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?"
All 1st plural, but I'm failing to see a reference to a trinity.
These could represent 2 people, 3 people, 100 people, etc. There's no more evidence this alludes to a trinity as it does to God and the chorus of angels. Or God and the souls of the dead, or God and Zeus.
They indicate more than 1 person, nothing more. No indication of a trinity. You are retroactively concluding these reference a trinity, or affirming the consequent.
There. I was nice, I was polite. No reason for you to whine about ad hominems.
The Hebrew word "Elohim" is the word primarily used when referring to God in the Old Testament and is the plural form of "Eloah" which means "a deity or the deity:-God". This implies the Trinity.
This does not. This implies a plural. The implication of a trinity is applied after the fact. See above.
Strong's Concordance reference number '430'. "Elohim"; "plural of 433 [Eloah]; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God;"
Good. We have proof that Eloah is the plural. We still have no evidence this plural indicates 3 persons, eg, the Trinity.
I can claim in good faith Eloah is implicating God and Bacchus.....and they're throwing a party. My argument would be just as valid as yours.
Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:"
The word "one" in this case is the Hebrew word "echad" which is not necessarily singular which is used to describe a unity which implies the Trinity.
Unity=trinity. Show me where this implies a trinity, and not God and the choir of angels. Otherwise, I'm just as safe assuming one or the other.
There's more but that should be enough. The allusions to the Trinity in the Old Testament are apparent and prove that Judaism has historically been a Trinitarian religion,
See above. There is a reference to a plural. There is no indication in ANY of the above that this plural refers to a trinity. You are affirming the consequent, and applying a Christian doctrine, established at Nicaea in 325, retroactively.
and since Christianity is rooted in Judaism this means Christianity was not the first occurrence much less the origin of the Trinity. The existence of the Trinity is consistent with the New Testament story of the origin of Christianity.
Time flows forward. Judaism must confirm the Christian sentiment, not vice versa. Otherwise, you affirm the consequent. The existence of the Trinity is consistent with the New Testament because the Council of Nicaea established trinitarianism as orthodoxy.
The retroactive application that plural uses of Hewbrew words must then refer to a trinity (as opposed to any other plural) is a fallacious argument.
The Old Testament lines you have shown allude only that God keeps company. QED. Your argument of what company God keeps is spurious.
If there is an OT verse showing "our" refers to God, the Son, and the Holy Ghost, you would have a point. Otherwise, no. Fail. Sorry.